A Contractor gives a contract of textile stiching(shirts) to a Sole Propreitor/Individual garments.
1-When the contract is completed should both parties raise the bill?
2-or just the Garments owner providing bill is sufficient??
3-If the contractor does'nt provide any bill, and only the garments owner gives the labour bill to contractor, will that cause any problem?
4-When turnover is 10,00,000/- per annum only garments owner providing bill and filing VAT is sufficient or not ? Will there be any problem for Garment owner for VAT filing without receving bill from contractor?
Kindly help me with this confusion.
Posted 1 year ago by Shruthi Leela
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